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Pappus and Desargues solution

So far, I have put up the following posts related to finite projective planes:

Primitive roots
Finite fields
Finite fields (2)
Latin squares, solutions, more solns
Desargues theorem
Projective planes, solutions
Pappus and Desargues
Bruck-Ryser (1)
Bruck-Ryser (2)

The objective is to give the apparently relevant background to the long-standing conjecture that there are no projective planes of order \(n\) unless \(n\) is a prime power.

The material still to come is:
(1) Pappus implies Desargues (this post);
(2) Wedderburn’s theorem
(3) Desargues implies the plane is over a division ring
(4) Pappus implies the plane is over a field
(5) Stinson’s proof that there are no orthogonal Latin squares of order 6
(6) the construction of non-Desarguesian planes
(7) Lee’s proof that there are two orthogonal Latin squares for any order \(n\gt 6\)

Showing that Pappus implies Desargues was set as a problem here.

To recap, the Pappus configuration is:

0 1 2 = \(L_0\)
0 3 6 = \(L_1\)
0 4 7 = \(L_2\)
1 3 8 = \(L_3\)
2 5 6 = \(L_4\)
4 6 8 = \(L_5\)
1 4 5 = \(L_6\)
2 7 8 = \(L_7\)
3 5 7 = \(L_8\)

If we remove any one of these lines from the list, then its existence can be recovered from the other 8. The Desargues configuration is:

0 1 2 = \(L_7\)
0 3 4 = \(L_8\)
0 5 6 = \(L_9\)
7 8 9 = \(L_0\)
3 5 7 = \(L_2\)
4 6 7 = \(L_1\)
1 5 8 = \(L_4\)
2 6 8 = \(L_3\)
1 3 9 = \(L_6\)
2 4 9 = \(L_5\)

Here it is important that the point \(i\) does not lie on any of the lines apart from those listed, except possibly \(L_i\). Again if the line \(L_i\) is removed, then it can be recovered from the other 9.

So suppose that \(L_0\) is removed from the Desargues list. That leaves us with:

0 1 2 = \(L_7\)
0 3 4 = \(L_8\)
0 5 6 = \(L_9\)
3 5 7 = \(L_2\)
4 6 7 = \(L_1\)
1 5 8 = \(L_4\)
2 6 8 = \(L_3\)
1 3 9 = \(L_6\)
2 4 9 = \(L_5\)

Take: point 10 to be the intersection of \(L_3,L_6\); line \(L_{10}\) to be the line through points 3,6; point 11 to be the intersection of \(L_7,L_{10}\); line \(L_{11}\) to be the line through points 0,10; point 12 to be the intersection of \(L_2,L_{11}\); and point 13 to be the intersection of \(L_1,L_{11}\). That takes us to:

\(L_7\) = 0 1 2 11
\(L_8\) = 0 3 4
\(L_9\) = 0 5 6
\(L_2\) = 3 5 7 12
\(L_1\) = 4 6 7 13
\(L_4\) = 1 5 8
\(L_3\) = 2 6 8 10
\(L_6\) = 1 3 9 10
\(L_5\) = 2 4 9
\(L_{10}\) = 3 6 11
\(L_{11}\) = 0 10 12 13

These points and lines are a Pappus configuration:

\(L_7\) = 0 1 11
\(L_9\) = 0 5 6
\(L_{11}\) = 0 10 12
\(L_6\) = 1 3 10
\(L_4\) = 1 5 8
\(L_2\) = 3 5 12
\(L_{10}\) = 3 6 11
\(L_3\) = 6 8 10

from which we deduce the existence of the line

\(L_{12}\) 8 11 12

We also have this Pappus configuration:

\(L_7\) = 0 2 11
\(L_8\) = 0 3 4
\(L_{11}\) = 0 10 13
\(L_5\) = 2 4 9
\(L_3\) = 2 6 10
\(L_{10}\) = 3 6 11
\(L_6\) = 3 9 10
\(L_1\) = 4 6 13

from which we deduce the existence of the line

\(L_{13}\) = 9 11 13

Using these two lines we have finally this Pappus configuration:

\(L_{10}\) = 3 6 11
\(L_2\) = 3 7 12
\(L_6\) = 3 9 10
\(L_1\) = 6 7 13
\(L_3\) = 6 8 10
\(L_{11}\) = 10 12 13
\(L_{12}\) = 8 11 12
\(L_{13}\) = 9 11 13

from which we deduce the existence of the line

\(L_0\) = 7 8 9

as required.

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Charm and competence

April was certainly mensis horribilis for Cameron. It ended with an unfortunate exchange on Monday:

Mr Dennis Skinner (Bolsover) (Lab) Why is the Culture Secretary getting better employment rights than the rest of the workers in Britain? Is it possibly because the Prime Minister knows that as long as the Culture Secretary is in the firing line, it prevents the bullets from hitting him, the Prime Minister?

The Prime Minister The hon. Gentleman has the right at any time to take his pension, and I advise him to do so.

[Hansard 30 April 2010, col 1251]

This provoked Matthew Norman, a columnist at the Independent, to write a vicious article about Cameron in Wednesday’s i. The theme was that Cameron looked bad when he lost his cool.

That, of course, is universally true, so it is a rather unkind way of summarising a corruscating article, full of amusing Bernard Levin style excesses:

Ostentatiously livid to be summoned by the Speaker, he lost his rag again and did something cosmically stupid. He attacked Dennis Skinner in a manner which might have been computer designed to illuminate his greatest weakness.

[Dennis Skinner photographed by Duncan Harris]

He is certainly half-right. The problem is that few people have much patience with the minutiae of political issues. Indeed most people are extraordinarily ill-informed and extraordinarily resistant to any attempt to give them the most basic facts. They much prefer to hold strong opinions on the basis of prejudice. That familiar backdrop does not favour the earnest explainers. It favours the effortlessly charming. And unpleasant, humourless put-downs are incompatible with charm. [Skinner may be an cantankerous working-class bruiser, but he is also a distinguished MP and the public does not like to hear 80-year-olds being needlessly insulted.]

We should hear later this evening whether Boris Johnson has got a second term as London mayor. If he has, it will be no thanks to his performance in the job. Ken Livingstone outperformed him on almost any criterion. But Ken is a leaden speaker, whereas Boris is exciting, with a wonderful gift for explaining away failures and filling you with excitement about the future under his dynamic leadership.

These days charm and humour are certainly almost indispensable requirements for a successful prime minister. Blair was the classic example. Indeed it is arguable that Cameron owes his position to Blair. The Tory MPs knew that they needed someone in the Blair mould, which made Cameron the obvious choice. Unfortunately, charm is not sufficient for success. Competence is also needed. One approach is to try to micromanage the key issues from No. 10. The other is to delegate. Cameron seems to be by nature a delegator.

The snag is that delegators have to be ruthless. If the Cabinet minister fails to measure up, then you have to sack them. He has been reluctant to do that. In all the furore over Jeremy Hunt’s moonlighting as unpaid adviser to Murdoch on how to take over BSkyB, Theresa May has escaped again.

The queues at Heathrow seem to lie wholly at her door. It goes straight back to the Brodie Clark saga. Faced with budget cuts, and keen to follow government policy in increasing efficiency, Brodie Clark replaced 100% checks by targeted checks. Unfortunately, he failed to clear his approach with the incoming Tory administration with sufficient clarity. Showing no interest in the merits of this approach, but conscious of how it might play in a press highly sensitive to immigration scandals, May went along with Clark’s sacking. He did not take that kindly and protested loudly and publicly.

So far so good. It is the job of politicians to have a sense of what the public will and will not stand for. Sometimes that has to overrule “sensible administration”. But only a fool would do nothing about the resulting problem. It was surely obvious that demanding a return to 100% checks would sooner or later result in horrendous delays, unless budgets were increased or other, more politically acceptable, ways were found of increasing the number of people a border agent could check in an hour. Yet she seems to have drifted oblivious into exactly those delays and then attempted to deal with them by pretending they did not exist.

That is simply inept.

Osborne’s budget woes were similarly inept. Not enough was done to think through the political implications of the various proposals. Clearly, the normal budget process was made much harder by the need to clear much of the detail with the LibDems. Outrageously, the LibDems were also determined to ignore the budget secrecy conventions with extensive media briefings to make sure that they got what they saw as their rightful share of the credit. Undoubtedly, Osborne’s eye was taken off the ball by all the infighting.

But I am unsympathetic. The Chancellor is one of the two top jobs in politics. You should not be there if you cannot cope.

Some of the more astute commentators have blamed Cameron for instructing the Downing Street staff to leave Osborne alone in the run-up to the budget, instead of examining his proposals minutely to make sure the presentational side was adequately covered. But that is secondary blame. There are plenty of people in the Treasury, both top civil servants and political advisers, to help with that. The primary responsibility was Osborne’s.

Osborne is not as wooden as some current and former Cabinet ministers, but he can hardly be said to ooze charisma. His position was supposedly earned on competence and political judgment, not charm. Yet recently he has been notably short on both. The time has to come when Cameron reshuffles. When you first enter No. 10, you naturally want close associates in key positions. But they have to measure up.

I find all this an occasion for sadness, not rejoicing. There were many things about the incoming Tory administration which seemed admirable. Determined not to repeat Blair’s mistake of idling away his first term of office, the Tories hit the ground running with ambitious reforms in many areas. The programme was one of the most ambitious since the Second World War, notwithstanding the severe constraints imposed by the recession.

So I have been rooting for them. But so far they seem to have got tangled up in one incompetent mess after another. The aircraft carrier saga was inherited, but they seem to have managed to make it even worse. New Labour had managed a huge increase in NHS costs, with only a modest improvement in delivered services. Unfortunately, Cameron chose to put a halfwit in charge of imposing some doctrinaire changes which seem to do nothing to address the real problems.

Meanwhile, Osborne appears to have chickened out of seizing the opportunity to prevent the bankers playing “Heads I win, Tails you lose” games. Does anyone really believe that the Vickers’ reforms will ever now be implemented? Mervyn King clearly believes that they should be, and that is probably one reason why Osborne was persuaded to delay things until he has retired.

Some of this is fairly technical stuff. You clearly have to be a lot smarter than Liam Fox to get your head around the ramifications of EMALS. But some of it is pure politics. After all the initial fuss about the Bullingdon Club, Cameron and Osborne knew full well that they had to exercise great care about being seen to be representing the rich. But under the pressure of events they seem to have done precious little to avoid it.

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Bruck-Ryser (2)

In the last post we showed that:

If \(n\) is 1 or 2 mod 4 and there is a finite projective plane of order \(n\), then \(n\) can be written as the sum of two squares of rational numbers.

The objective now is to show that if a prime \(p=3\bmod 4\) divides \(n\) to an odd power (ie the highest power of \(p\) which divides \(n\) is odd) then \(n\) cannot be written as the sum of two squares of rational numbers.

Putting these two together gives immediately, that if \(n\) is 1 or 2 mod 4 and has a prime factor \(p=3\bmod 4\) which divides it to an odd power, then there is no finite projective plane of order \(n\), which is the celebrated Bruck-Ryser theorem.

So suppose \(n=r^2+s^2\) with \(r,s\) rational. Then multiplying through by a suitable positive integer \(c\), such as the lowest common multiple of the denominators of \(r\) and \(s\) we get $$c^2n=a^2+b^2$$

Now suppose that the highest power of \(p=3\bmod 4\) dividing \(nc^2\) is \(2k+1\). Then we have \(a^2+b^2=0\bmod p\).

Lemma 3

If \(p=3\bmod 4\) is a prime and divides \(a^2+b^2\), then \(a,b\) are both multiples of \(p\).

We use the fact that the residues \(G=\{1,2,\dots,p-1\}\) form a group under multiplication \(\bmod p\). So if \(a\) is not a multiple of \(p\) then we can find \(c\in G\) such that \(ac=1\bmod p\) and hence \(0=(a^2+b^2)c^2=1+b^2c^2\bmod p\), so \((bc)^2=-1\bmod p\) and hence \(bc\) has order 4. But \(|G|=p-1=2\bmod 4\), so 4 does not divide \(|G|\). Contradiction. \(\Box\)

So we can divide through \(c^2n=a^2+b^2\) by \(p^2\). After repeating another \(k-1\) times we end up with $$N=A^2+B^2$$

with \(N=c^2n/p^{2k},A=a/p^k,B=b/p^k\), and \(N\) divisible by \(p\) but not \(p^2\). But the Lemma still gives \(A,B\) divisible by \(p\) and hence \(N\) divisible by \(p^2\). Contradiction.

That completes the proof of Bruck-Ryser, except for the two Lemmas in the earlier post. The first (Lemma 1) was to show that any positive integer is the sum of four (or fewer squares). That is a well-known result proved by Lagrange (1736-1813) in 1770.

The second (Lemma 2) was to show explicitly that if two integers \(m,n\) can each be expressed as a sum of four squares (some of which may be zero), then so can their product \(mn\). The proof there is just a question of multiplying out the formulae stated in the Lemma.

Using Lemma 2, we see that to prove Lemma 1 it is sufficient to prove it for any prime. The case 2 is obvious: \(2=1^2+1^2\).

So now suppose \(p\) is any odd prime. We show first that we can find integers \(a,b\) such that \(a^2+b^2+1=kp\) with \(0\lt k\lt p\). Put \(m=(p-1)/2\). The \(m+1\) numbers \(0,1^2,\dots,m^2\) must all be incongruent \(\bmod p\). For \(a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)\) and \(0\lt a+b\le 2m\lt p\), so \(a+b\) cannot be divisible by \(p\), whilst \(-m\le a-b\le m\) and \(a-b\ne 0\) so \(a-b\) cannot be divisible by \(p\). Hence the \(m+1\) numbers \()-1,-1-1^2,\dots,-1-m^2\) must also be incongruent \(\bmod p\). But there are only \(2m+1\) incongruent numbers \(\bmod p\) so the two sets must overlap, giving \(a,b\) such that \(a^2+b^2+1=0\bmod p\). But \(0\lt a^2+b^2+1\le 2m^2+1\lt 2m(2m+1)\lt p^2\).

So let \(h\) be the smallest positive integer such that \(a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2=hp\) for some integers \(a,b,c,d\). \(h\) cannot be even for then an even number of \(a,b,c,d\) must be odd, so rearranging so that both or neither of \(a,b\) are odd, and both or neither of \(c,d\) are odd, we have \(\left({\frac {a+b}2}\right)^2+\left({\frac {a-b}2}\right)^2+\left({\frac {c+d}2}\right)^2+\left({\frac {c-d}2}\right)^2=\left({\frac h2}\right)p\), which contradicts the minimality of \(h\).

Suppose \(h\) is odd and greater than 1. Take \(A=a\bmod h,B=b\bmod h\), \(C=c\bmod h,D=d\bmod h\) and \(-h/2\lt A,B,C,D\lt h/2\). Then \(A^2+B^2+C^2+D^2\lt h^2\) and \(A^2+B^2+C^2+D^2=0\bmod h\), so \(A^2+B^2+C^2+D^2=h’h\) with \(0\le h’\lt h\). If \(h’=0\) then \(A=B=C=D=0\) so \(a,b,c,d\) are all multiples of \(h\) and hence \(h^2\) divides \(a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2=hp\). So \(h\) divides \(p\), which is impossible since \(1\lt h\lt p\) which is prime. Hence \(h’\ne 0\). Now following Lemma 2 put:

\(\alpha=aA+bB+cC+dD\)
\(\beta=-bA+aB+dC-cD\)
\(\gamma=-cA-dB+aC+bD\)
\(\delta=-dA+cB-bC+aD\)

then \(\alpha^2+\beta^2+\gamma^2+\delta^2=hph’h\)
But \(-bA+aB=dC-cD=0\bmod h\), so \(\beta=0\bmod h\). Similarly, \(-cA+aC=-dB+bD=0\bmod h\), so \(\gamma=0\bmod h\) and similarly \(\delta=0\bmod h\). Thus four of the five terms in \(\alpha^2+\beta^2+\gamma^2+\delta^2=hph’h\) are divisible by \(h^2\), so the fifth, \(\alpha^2\) must also be divisible by \(h^2\) and we can divide by \(h^2\) to get four squares with sum \(h’p\), contradicting the minimality of \(h\). Hence \(h=1\) and \(p\) is a sum of four squares. \(\Box\)

The precursor to Lagrange’s result was a result of Pierre Fermat (born early 1600s, died 1665):

Lemma 4

An odd prime \(p\) can be written as a sum of two squares (of integers) if and only if it is \(1\bmod 4\). For example, \(29=2^2+5^2\) and \(29=7\cdot 4+1\).

The “only if” is almost obvious: \((2k)^2=4k^2=0\bmod 4\) and \((2k+1)^2=4k^2+4k+1=1\bmod 4\), so any square is 0 or \(1\bmod 4\), and hence a sum of two squares must be 0, 1 or 2 mod 4.

To prove the “if”, let \(p=4k+1\) be prime and define \(S\), a set of the triples of positive integers, as follows: \(S=\{(a,b,c):a^2+4bc=p\}\).

Notice that if \(a=b-c\) then \(a^2+4bc=(b+c)^2\) which is not prime, and if \(a=2b\) then \(a^2+4bc=4b(b+c)\) which is not prime, so no such triples can belong to \(S\), and hence \(S\) can be partitioned into three disjoint subsets: \(L=\{(a,b,c):a\lt b-c\},M=\{(a,b,c):b-c\lt a\lt 2b\}\) and \(N=\{(a,b,c):2b\lt a\}\). Define \(f\) on \(S\) by \(f(a,b,c)=(a+2c,c,b-c-a)\) for \((a,b,c)\in L\), \((2b-a,b,a-b+c)\) for \((a,b,c)\in M\), and \((a-2b,a-b+c,b)\) for \((a,b,c)\in N\).

It is easy to check that \(f(L)\subseteq N,f(M)\subseteq M,f(N)\subseteq N\) and that \(f(f(a,b,c))=(a,b,c)\). Any fixed point with \(f(a,b,c)=(a,b,c)\) must lie in \(M\) and hence satisfy \(a=2b-a,b=b,c=a-b+c\). So any fixed point must have the form \(a,a,c\). Since it lies in \(S\) is must also satisfy \(p=a^2+4ac=a(a+4c)\). Hence the unique fixed point is \((1,1,k)\). That means that \(S\) must have an odd number of elements, because the triples that are not fixed points form pairs \(T,T’\) with \(f(T)=T’,f(T’)=T\) and \(T\ne T’\).

But now define \(g\) on \(S\) by \(g(a,b,c)=(a,c,b)\). Its fixed points are all triples \((a,b,b)\) such that \(a^2+4b^2=p\). As with \(f\), since \(g(g(T))=T\) the triples which are not fixed form pairs, so since there are an odd number of triples in \(S\), there must be an odd number of fixed points, and hence at least one. \(\Box\)

[This approach is often known as Don Zagier's "one-line proof". Some line! Of course, if you just give the function \(f(S)\), that is maybe enough, but it is a fairly obscure hint, unless people are familiar with the basic idea.]

Problems

To round off this area you might like to look at two harder problems:

1. Which squares can be represented as a sum of three non-zero squares?

2. Which positive integers can be represented as a sum of three (or fewer) squares?

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Bruck-Ryser (1)

Our objective is to prove the following result:

Bruck-Ryser theorem
If \(n\) is 1 or \(2\bmod 4\) and has a prime factor \(p=3\bmod 4\) which divides it to an odd power, then there is no finite projective plane of order \(n\).

[\(p\) divides \(n\) to an odd power has the obvious meaning that the highest power of \(p\) which divides \(n\) is odd. For example, 3 divides 135 to an odd power, but 567 to an even power.]

So we can conclude that there is no finite projective plane of order 6, 14, 21, 22, 30, 33, 38, or 42 and infinitely many other orders. This theorem, which was proved in 1948 by Richard Bruck and Herbert Ryser represents more or less the only significant progress towards proving the long-standing conjecture that there are no projective planes of order \(n\) unless \(n\) is a prime power.

The proof is in two parts. In the first part we show that if \(n\) is 1 or \(2\bmod 4\) and there is a finite projective plane of order \(n\), then \(n\) can be written as the sum of two squares of rational numbers. The second part, which I defer to the next post, uses the older and more familiar result that such an expression is not possible if \(n\) has a prime factor \(p=3\bmod 4\) which divides it to an odd power.

Suppose \(n\) is 1 or \(2\bmod 4\) and that \(G\) is a projective plane of order \(n\). Put \(N=n^2+n+1\), so the plane has \(N\) points and \(N\) lines. Note that \(N=3\bmod 4\). Let \(A=(a_{ij})\) be the incidence matrix, so that if the points are \(P_i\) and the lines are \(L_j\), then \(a_{ij}=1\) if \(P_i\in L_j\) and 0 otherwise. Let \(I\) be the unit \(N\times N\) matrix and \(J\) the \(N\times n\) matrix with every entry 1.

We claim that \(A^TA=J+nI\). For the \(i,j\) element of \(A^TA\) is \(\sum_ka_{ki}a_{kj}\). For \(i\ne k\) the lines \(L_i,L_j\) meet in exactly one point, so there is just one \(k\) for which \(a_{ki}\) and \(a_{kj}\) are both non-zero and hence \(\sum_ka_{ki}a_{kj}=1\). But if \(i=j\) then the lines \(L_i,L_j\) meet in exactly \(n+1\) points so \(\sum_ka_{ki}a_{kj}=n+1\), as claimed.

For example, with the Fano plane (\(n=2,N=7\)) we have \(A=\left(\begin{array}{ccccccc}0&1&0&1&0&1&0\\1&0&0&1&1&0&0\\0&0&1&1&0&0&1\\1&1&1&0&0&0&0\\0&1&0&0&1&0&1\\1&0&0&0&0&1&1\\0&0&1&0&1&1&0\end{array}\right)\), which does indeed give \(A^TA=\left(\begin{array}{ccccccc}3&1&1&1&1&1&1\\1&3&1&1&1&1&1\\1&1&3&1&1&1&1\\1&1&1&3&1&1&1\\1&1&1&1&3&1&1\\1&1&1&1&1&3&1\\1&1&1&1&1&1&3\end{array}\right)\).

Take \(x^T\) be the row vector \((x_1,x_2,\dots,x_N)\), where the \(x_i\) are any rationals, and \(x\) the corresponding column vector. Put \(s=\sum_{i=1}^N x_i\) and \(z=(z_1,\dots,z_N)=Ax\). Then $$\sum_{i=1}^N z_i^2=z^Tz=x^TA^TAx=x^TJx+nx^Tx=s^2+n\sum_{i=1}^N x_i^2$$.

Add a term \(nx_{N+1}^2\) to both sides, express \(n\) as a sum of four squares \(n_1^2+n_2^2+n_3^2+n_4^2\), group the \(N+1\) terms \(x_i^2\) on the rhs into fours, and express each \(n\) times each four as a sum of four squares \(y_i^2\):

\(n(x_1^2+x_2^2+x_3^2+x_4^2)=(y_1^2+y_2^2+y_3^2+y_4^2)\)
\(n(x_5^2+x_6^2+x_7^2+x_8^2)=(y_5^2+y_6^2+y_7^2+y_8^2)\)

\(n(x_{N-2}^2+x_{N-1}^2+x_N^2+x_{N+1}^2)=(y_{N-2}^2+y_{N-1}^2+y_N^2+y_{N+1}^2)\)

This uses:

Lemma 1
Any positive integer is the sum of four (or fewer) squares.

[We defer the proof of this well-known result to the next post.]

Lemma 2
(1) \((n_1^2+n_2^2+n_3^2+n_4^2)(x_1^2+x_2^2+x_3^2+x_4^2)=(y_1^2+y_2^2+y_3^2+y_4^2)\), where
\(y_1=n_1x_1-n_2x_2-n_3x_3-n_4x_4\),
\(y_2=n_2x_1+n_1x_2-n_4x_3+n_3x_4\),
\(y_3=n_3x_1+n_4x_2+n_1x_3-n_2x_4\),
\(y_4=n_4x_1-n_3x_2+n_2x_3+n_1x_4\).
(2) \(x_1=(n_1y_1+n_2y_2+n_3y_3+n_4y_4)/n\),
\(x_2=(-n_2y_1+n_1y_2+n_4y_3-n_3y_4)/n\),
\(x_3=(-n_3y_1-n_4y_2+n_1y_3+n_2y_4)/n\),
\(x_4=(-n_4y_1+n_3y_2-n_2y_3+n_1y_4)/n\),
\(\Box\)

So we get $$\sum_{i=1}^Nz_i^2+nx_{N+1}^2=s^2+\sum_{i=1}^{N+1}y_i^2$$

We can also use Lemma 2(2) to express each \(z_i\) as a linear combination of \(y_j\) with rational coefficients.

We now work through \(N\) steps. At step \(i\) we express \(y_i\) as a linear combination of \(y_{i+1},\dots,y_{N+1}\) with rational coefficients so that \(y_i^2=z_i^2\). We do this as follows. First, we take the expression for \(z_i\) as a linear combination of \(y_j\) and turn it into an expression for \(z_i\) as a linear combination of \(y_i,y_{i+1},\dots,y_{N+1}\) using the relations derived for \(y_1,\dots,y_{i-1}\) derived in earlier steps. If the coefficient of \(y_i\) in this expression is not 1, then we set \(y_i=z_i\) and get an expression for \(y_i\) as a linear combination of \(y_{i+1},\dots,y_{N+1}\) with rational coefficients. If the coefficient is 1, then we set \(y_i=-z_i\) to get our expression.

After working through all \(N\) steps we have expressions for \(y_1,\dots,y_N\) and \(y_{N+1}\) as a free parameter. We can now set \(y_{N+1}\) to an arbitrary value \(k\). The equation for \(y_N\) now gives it as a rational multiple of \(k\), then the equation for \(y_{N-1}\) gives it as a rational multiple of \(k\), and so on back to \(y_1\). We can also use Lemma 2(2) to get all \(x_i\) and hence also \(s\) as rational multiples of \(k\). Now whatever the value of \(k\) this gives \(y_1^2=z_1^2,y_2^2=z_2^2,\dots,y_N^2=z_N^2\), and hence $$nx_{N+1}^2=s^2+y_{N+1}^2$$ If \(x_{N+1}=0\) then the right hand side is zero and hence \(y_{N+1}=k=0\). So provided we pick \(k\ne 0\), we have \(x_{N+1}\ne 0\), so we may divide through by its square to get \(n\) as a sum of two squares of rational numbers. \(\Box\)

The actual computation in a real case is fairly formidable. For example, we work through the simplest possible case, \(n=2\):

\(z_1=x_2+x_4+x_6\),
\(z_2=x_1+x_4+x_5\),
\(z_3=x_3+x_4+x_7\),
\(z_4=x_1+x_2+x_3\),
\(z_5=x_2+x_5+x_7\),
\(z_6=x_1+x_6+x_7\),
\(z_7=x_3+x_5+x_6\).

Now we have \(n=1^2+1^2+0^2+0^2\), so

\(y_1=x_1-x_2,x_1=(y_1+y_2)/2\)
\(y_2=x_1+x_2,x_2=(-y_1+y_2)/2\),
\(y_3=x_3-x_4,x_3=(y_3+y_4)/2\),
\(y_4=x_3+x_4,x_4=(-y_3+y_4)/2\),
\(y_5=x_5-x_6,x_5=(y_5+y_6)/2\),
\(y_6=x_5+x_6,x_6=(-y_5+y_6)/2\),
\(y_7=x_7-x_8,x_7=(y_7+y_8)/2\),
\(y_8=x_7+x_8,x_8=(-y_7+y_8)/2\).

We now get:

\(z_1=(-y_1+y_2-y_3+y_4-y_5+y_6)/2\),
\(z_2=(y_1+y_2-y_3+y_4+y_5+y_6)/2\),
\(z_3=(2y_4+y_7+y_8)/2\),
\(z_4=(2y_2+y_3+y_4)/2\),
\(z_5=(-y_1+y_2+y_5+y_6+y_7+y_8)/2\),
\(z_6=(y_1+y_2-y_5+y_6+y_7+y_8)/2\),
\(z_7=(y_3+y_4+2y_6)/2\).

Putting \(y_1=z_1\) gives \(y_1=(y_2-y_3+y_4-y_5+y_6)/3\),
putting \(y_2=z_2\) gives \(y_2=-2y_3+2y_4+y_5+2y_6\),
putting \(y_3=z_3\) gives \(y_3=(2y_4+y_7+y_8)/2\),
putting \(y_4=-z_4\) gives \(y_4=(-4y_5-8y_6+3y_7+3y_8)/8\),
putting \(y_5=-z_5\) gives \(y_5=(-4y_6-y_7-y_8)/8\),
putting \(y_6=z_6\) gives \(y_6=(y_7+y_8)/4\),
putting \(y_7=z_7\) gives \(y_7=3y_8)\).

So taking \(y_8=k\), we get \(y_7=3k,y_6=k,y_5=-k,y_4=k,y_3=3k,y_2=-3k,y_1=-k\), \(x_8=-k,s=k\) and hence the relation: \(2\cdot k^2=k^2+k^2\), dividing by \(k^2\) gives \(2=1^2+1^2\).

In this case, of course, that is hardly a big achievement, since we have gone through a huge rigmarole to derive \(2=1^2+1^2\) from \(2=1^2+1^2\)! But the point is that even if we had started with \(n\) as the sum of four (non-zero) squares of integers, we would have ended up with \(n\) as a sum of two squares of rationals.

Note that the only way in which we use the existence of a projective plane of order \(n\) is in establishing the relation \(A^TA=J+nI\), where \(A\) is the incidence matrix. Show that the existence of a matrix \(A\) satisfying this relation implies the existence of a projective plane of order \(n\) provided that all its entries are 0 or 1.

However, the proof would have gone through just as well if the entries of \(A\) had been any rational numbers. Indeed, one can show that the converse holds: if \(n\) is 1 or 2 mod 4 and no prime \(p=3\bmod 4\) divides it to an odd power, then we can find a rational matrix \(A\) satisfying the relation. But that is not enough to give a projective plane.

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Pappus and Desargues

In the previous post on Desargues’ theorem we showed the classic diagram which is how it looks in Euclidean geometry in the general case where the lines are not parallel. But this is not really a fair representation of the general projective situation, which is much more symmetrical than that implies.

The best description of the theorem is the simple list:

0 1 2 = \(L_7\)
0 3 4 = \(L_8\)
0 5 6 = \(L_9\)
7 8 9 = \(L_0\)
3 5 7 = \(L_2\)
4 6 7 = \(L_1\)
1 5 8 = \(L_4\)
2 6 8 = \(L_3\)
1 3 9 = \(L_6\)
2 4 9 = \(L_5\)

Each line has 3 points, and each point appears on 3 lines. Given any two distinct points \(i, j\), the line through \(i, j\) appears on the list unless the point \(j\) is one of the three points on line \(L_i\). The list can also be read with points and lines interchanged. For example, lines \(L_0,L_1,L_2\) all pass through the point 7.

The theorem is now as follows. Delete any one line \(L_i\) from the list. Provided the 10 points are all distinct, and the 9 remaining lines are all distinct, then the deleted line must exist. That is the “perspective centre implies perspective axis” version. The perspective centre is the point \(i\).

Alternatively, delete any one point \(i\) from the list. Then provided the 10 lines are all distinct and the 9 remaining points are distinct, the three lines shown with only two points are concurrent at a point which we may call \(i\). The perspective axis is the line \(L_i\), so this is the “perspective axis implies perspective centre” version.

We briefly consider degeneracy. The point \(i\) may lie on the line \(L_i\). But if it lies on any of the other lines (apart from the three shown as containing it in the configuration), then six points coincide and four lines coincide. The effect is that one of the points \(P\) of \(L_i\) is now only constrained to lie on the six point line and on \(L_i\). So if \(L_i\) is the deleted line, we cannot recover it.

For example, suppose we delete \(L_0\) and put the point 0 on the line \(L_2\), then the points \(0,3,4,5,6,7\) are all collinear and the lines \(L_1,L_2,L_8,L_9\) all coincide. The point 7 is only constrained to be anywhere on the line \(L_1\), so it will not necessarily lie on the line through points 8 and 9:

0 1 2 = \(L_7\)
1 3 9 = \(L_6\)
2 4 9 = \(L_5\)
7 8 9 = \(L_0\)
1 5 8 = \(L_4\)
2 6 8 = \(L_3\)
0 3 4 5 6 7 = \(L_1=L_2=L_8=L_9\)

The same is true if we delete any of the other lines \(L_3,L_4,L_5,L_6,L_7\). That leaves its intersection with the six point line unconstrained and so we cannot recover it.

If we delete one of the lines \(L_1=L_2=L_8=L_9\), then the theorem still works, but rather trivially. For example, if we deleted \(L_1\), but still placed 0 on \(L_2\)

0 1 2 = \(L_7\)
7 8 9 = \(L_0\)
1 5 8 = \(L_4\)
2 6 8 = \(L_3\)
1 3 9 = \(L_6\)
2 4 9 = \(L_5\)
0 3 4 5 6 7 = \(L_2=L_8=L_9\)

then we can recover \(L_1\) from the six point line.

Similarly, the Pappus theorem can be described by this list:

0 1 2 = \(L_0\)
0 3 6 = \(L_1\)
0 4 7 = \(L_2\)
1 3 8 = \(L_3\)
2 5 6 = \(L_4\)
4 6 8 = \(L_5\)
1 4 5 = \(L_6\)
2 7 8 = \(L_7\)
3 5 7 = \(L_8\)

If we delete one of the lines, then provided the 9 points are distinct and the remaining 8 lines are distinct, we can recover the 9th line. Alternatively, if we delete one of the 9 points, then provided the remaining 8 points are all distinct and the 9 lines are all distinct, then the 3 lines shown with only two points pass through a single point. For example, suppose we delete the point 2, leaving:

0 1 = \(L_0\)
0 3 6 = \(L_1\)
0 4 7 = \(L_2\)
1 3 8 = \(L_3\)
5 6 = \(L_4\)
4 6 8 = \(L_5\)
1 4 5 = \(L_6\)
7 8 = \(L_7\)
3 5 7 = \(L_8\)

The diagram was originally drawn in the conventional way with the points \(0, 1, 2\) as \(A, B, C\) and the points \(5, 4, 3\) as \(A’,B’,C’\). The theorem was then that the three intersections \(6,7,8\) were collinear. The diagram can now be interpreted as two sets of concurrent lines \(L_1,L_3,L_8\) and \(L_2,L_5,L_6\). The intersections of \(L_1,L_2\) and of \(L_3,L_6\) give the line \(L_0\); the intersections of \(L_1,L_5\) and of \(L_8,L_6\) give the line \(L_4\); and the intersections of \(L_3,L_5\) and of \(L_8,L_2\) give the line \(L_7\). The conclusion is that the three lines \(L_0,L_4,L_7\) are also concurrent, thus recovering the deleted point 2.

Degeneracy is simpler in the Pappus case. If we put any of the points 0, 1, 2 on \(L_0\) onto \(L_8\), then the result becomes trivial because two of the points on \(L_5\) coincide, and similarly for other cases.

It turns out that Pappus’ theorem implies Desargues’ theorem. The proof is quite short but it is surprisingly tricky to find. You have to start by constructing some additional points and then apply Pappus’ theorem more than once.

Problem

Prove that Pappus’ theorem implies Desargues’ theorem.

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